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uri2e4g

uri2e4g

Answered question

2022-07-13

For instance, let the function:
f = n = 1 a b ,
for b N , b > 1 and a irrational such that f converges to the real number k. We immediately see that all partial products are irrational. Can we then also say that k is irrational?

Answer & Explanation

Kiana Cantu

Kiana Cantu

Beginner2022-07-14Added 22 answers

Let a = 2 for all n and b n = 2 for n = 1 , 2 , 3 and b n = 2 n 2 for n 3
Then you have b n as the sequence 2 , 2 , 2 , 4 , 8 , 16 , and 1 b n = 2
So
n = 1 a b n = a 1 b n = 2 2 = 2
which is an integer limit despite all the a b n being irrational
ttyme411gl

ttyme411gl

Beginner2022-07-15Added 6 answers

Let p be a prime number and n N . Clearly, p 1 / n is irrational.
Now, consider a sequence ( n i ) i N such that i = 1 1 n i = 1.
Observe that i = 1 p 1 / n i = p.

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