If lim_(x -> oo) (f(x))/(x)=1, then EE x_n -> oo such that lim_(n -> oo) f′(x_n)=1

Uriah Molina

Uriah Molina

Answered question

2022-11-05

Let f : R R be a differentiable function. If
lim x f ( x ) x = 1 ,
then there exists a sequence ( x n ) such that x n as n and
lim n f ( x n ) = 1.
We tried to use the Mean Value Theorem. For each n, there exists x n [ 0 , n ] such that
f ( x n ) = f ( n ) f ( 0 ) n .
Hence, lim n f ( x n ) = 1. But, we are not sure that x n

Answer & Explanation

petyelebxu

petyelebxu

Beginner2022-11-06Added 13 answers

You can apply the mean-value theorem to the intervals [ n , 2 n ]:
f ( x n ) = f ( 2 n ) f ( n ) 2 n n = 2 f ( 2 n ) 2 n f ( n ) n 2 1 = 1
and x n n

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