Arianna Villegas
2022-03-22
Logarithmic inconsistency when integrating
Consider following integral:
By factorizing the denominator and then taking the factor outside the integral sign, it can be rewritten as
(2)
Now (1) and (2) should be equivalent, yet they evaluate into different integrals namely
(1a)
(2a)
Since , then (1a) and (2a) should be equivalent as well, which reduces to
which clearly isn't true. What am I missing here?
Wilson Rivas
Beginner2022-03-23Added 12 answers
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