Is it true that for x\in[0,2\pi] we have \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{\cos(nx)}{n^2}=\frac{x^2}{4}-\frac{\pi x}{2}+\frac{\pi^2}{6}

Caleb Snyder

Caleb Snyder

Answered question

2022-01-24

Is it true that for x[0,2π] we have
n=1cos(nx)n2=x24πx2+π26

Answer & Explanation

Gordon Stephens

Gordon Stephens

Beginner2022-01-25Added 10 answers

I show that
n=sin2ann2=πa
when a(0,π). Now, use the fact that
n=11n2=π26
and let S be the sum in question. Then
π26S=n=11cosnxn2=2n=1sin2nx2n2
Rewrite the last sum as
2n=1sin2nx2n2=n=sin2nx2n2(x2)2
=πx2x24
Then
π26S=πx2x24S=x24πx2+π26
huglaus51

huglaus51

Beginner2022-01-26Added 5 answers

So we have
n=1sinnxn=πx2 (0<x<2π)
Integrate both sides with respect to x
n=1cosnxn2=πx2x24+C
Set x=0C=ζ(2)=π26
Giving us
n=1x24πx2+π26
RizerMix

RizerMix

Expert2022-01-27Added 656 answers

Here there is a way using Fourier series. Consider the orthonormal basis of L2([0,2π]), given by the functions en(x)=12πeinx, nZ Since for x[0,2π] the indicator function 1[0,x] is in L2([0,2π]), it can be expressed in its development in the basis (en)n. If we denote (f,g) the dot-product of two functions f,g in L2([0,2π]), that is (f,g)=[0,2π]f(x)g(x)dx then we have x=(1[0,x],1[0,x])=nZ(1[0,x],en)(en,1[0,x])=nZ|(1[0,x],en)|2 The rest is just computing integrals and separating absolutely convergence series. We have (1[0,x],en)=12π0xeinydy=(einx12πni,n0),(x2π,n=0): Hence, x=x22π+12πnZ22cos(nx)n2 Using symetric arguments (22cos(nx)n2=22cos(nx)(n)2), we obtain x=x22π+2πn=11n22πn=1cos(nx)n2=x22π+π32πn=1cos(nx)n2 From where we finally obtain n=1cos(nx)n2=x24πx2+π26 Outside the interval, just use the periodicity of cos

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