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Emmy Dillon

Emmy Dillon

Answered question

2022-06-26

Does
0 1 n = 0 x e n x d x = n = 0 0 1 x e n x d x ?

Answer & Explanation

Sawyer Day

Sawyer Day

Beginner2022-06-27Added 30 answers

You can use Fubini's theorem, but it seems overkill. Note that for all integer N we have
n = 0 N 0 1 x e n x d x = 0 1 n = 0 N x e n x d x 0 1 n = 0 + x e n x d x ,
so
n = 0 + 0 1 x e n x d x 0 1 n = 0 + x e n x d x .
For the reversed inequality, fix ε > 0. Since n = 0 + x e n x is integrable, we can find a δ > 0 such that 0 δ n = 0 + x e n x ε. And the series n = 0 + x e n x is normally convergent on [ δ , 1 ]. So we have
0 1 n = 0 + x e n x d x = 0 δ n = 0 + x e n x d x + δ 1 n = 0 + x e n x d x ε + δ 1 n = 0 + x e n x d x = ε + n = 0 + δ 1 x e n x d x ε + n = 0 + 0 1 x e n x d x ,
and since ε is arbitrary we can conclude the equality.

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