Proof of logical equivalence I have been trying to get my head around this but currently online cla

Davon Irwin

Davon Irwin

Answered question

2022-06-19

Proof of logical equivalence
I have been trying to get my head around this but currently online classes are horrible plus there is not many instructions but how do i get from ( P Q ) > ( P Q )?
Based on what I understood we use the logical conditional statement P Q =
to get ( P Q ) ( P Q ).
Then we use De Morgan's Law to get ( P Q ) ( P Q ).
After we use the associate and communicative law we end up with ( P Q ) ( P Q ) which is a logical equivalence to ( P Q ) because P Q =∼ P Q.

Answer & Explanation

boomzwamhc

boomzwamhc

Beginner2022-06-20Added 17 answers

Step 1
( P Q ) ( P Q ).
Then we use De Morgan's Law to get ( P Q ) ( P Q ) ..
You made a mistake here: the second line ought to instead be ( P Q ) ( P Q ) ..
Step 2
But how do i get from ( P Q ) ( P Q ) to ( P Q ) ?
I suspect that you've copied the given question wrongly. As pointed out by Alessandro, the former is a tautology. So, you're basically being asked to prove that the latter is a tautological consequence of a tautology. But this is the same asking you to prove that the latter is a tautology. This is impossible, because the latter is patently not a tautology (i.e., always true no matter what the truth values of P and Q are).
xonycutieoxl1

xonycutieoxl1

Beginner2022-06-21Added 7 answers

Step 1
There's something wrong, because P Q P Q is always true. You can see this by doing the calculations as you've done them, thus getting ( P Q ) ( P Q ) = ( P P ) ( Q Q ) = true true = true
Step 2
or, just by looking at the meaning of the implication, which is "If P and Q are true, then P or Q are true", which is clearly true. In particular, it is true even if P Q is false, which means that they cannot be equivalent.

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