Justification for g being a one to one function If f and f &#x2218;<!-- ∘ --> g are one

cazinskup3

cazinskup3

Answered question

2022-06-21

Justification for g being a one to one function
If f and f g are one to one functions, is g also a one to one function? Justify your answer.
I am guessing that g should be a one to one function.
So a function F is injective if:
a b ( F ( a ) = F ( b ) a = b )
So since f is injective:
a b ( f ( a ) = f ( b ) a = b )
And f g is also injective:
a b ( f g ( a ) = f g ( b ) g ( a ) = g ( b ) )
a b ( g ( a ) = g ( b ) a = b )
Does this show that g must also be injective?

Answer & Explanation

Eli Shaffer

Eli Shaffer

Beginner2022-06-22Added 16 answers

Step 1
Let's prove the contrapositive! If g is not injective, then there exist two distinct elements a and b in the domain of g such that g ( a ) = g ( b ). Let c = g ( a ).
Then ( f g ) ( a ) = f ( g ( a ) ) = f ( c ) = f ( g ( b ) ) = ( f g ) ( b ) ,, and so f g is also not injective.
Step 2
Thus, if g is not injective, then f g is not injective. By contraposition, this is equivalent to the statement that if f g is injective, then g is also injective, which we were asked to prove.
(Note that we did not, in fact, have to use the assumption that f is also injective anywhere, and indeed the same result holds even if f is not injective. However, while f g being injective does not imply that f is injective, we can prove that it implies that the restriction of f to the range of g must be injective.)
Alannah Short

Alannah Short

Beginner2022-06-23Added 5 answers

Explanation:
You proof doesn't seems correct. Anyway, take a,b such that g ( a ) = g ( b ). So f g ( a ) = f g ( b ). But fg is injective, so a = b. The injective of f doesn't seem important as hypotesis.

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