Is the function f : <mrow

Jovany Clayton

Jovany Clayton

Answered question

2022-07-04

Is the function f : R R : f ( x ) = 1 bijective?

Answer & Explanation

potamanixv

potamanixv

Beginner2022-07-05Added 15 answers

Explanation:
I do not think so. The function is neither injective nor surjective.
We can make the function bijective by doing this: k : { 1 } { 1 } : k ( x ) = 1
The inverse is then: g : { 1 } { 1 } : g ( y ) = 1
delirija7z

delirija7z

Beginner2022-07-06Added 5 answers

Step 1
You are correct, f is clearly not bijective. This can be seen if you consider that f ( 0 ) = f ( 1 ) = 1 so f 1 ( 1 ) would have to map to both 0 and 1, so it's not a function. (which is why injectivity is necessary)
Step 2
And yes, if you limit the domain and range then you can make it bijective. The same thing can also be seen if you redefine f ( x ) = x 2 as a function from R + to R + ,, where f 1 ( x ) = x is a proper inverse because x 2 = | x | = x when x R + .

Do you have a similar question?

Recalculate according to your conditions!

New Questions in Discrete math

Ask your question.
Get an expert answer.

Let our experts help you. Answer in as fast as 15 minutes.

Didn't find what you were looking for?