Top-injective and indiscrete I have found one proposition in some papers about pure injectivity top

Lucia Grimes

Lucia Grimes

Answered question

2022-07-04

Top-injective and indiscrete
I have found one proposition in some papers about pure injectivity topological modules. Proposition: A topological space is categorically Top-injective if and only if it is indiscrete. Proof: ( ) Suppose that ( I , τ ) is a topological space where I is non-empty and τ is the indiscrete topology. Let f be a continuous one-to-one function from ( Y , τ 1 ) to ( X , τ 2 ). Let g be a continuous map from ( Y , τ 1 ) to ( I , τ ). Let i I. Let h ( x ) = g f 1 ( x ) if x f ( Y ) and h ( x ) = i if x f ( Y ). Now h is a continuous map from ( X , τ 2 ) to ( I , τ ) since τ is the discrete topology on I. Furthermore, g = h f. Therefore, ( I , τ ) is categorically Top-injective.
Is h(x) well-defined? I mean, h ( x ) = i for every x f ( Y ) doesn't guarantee that h(x) is well-defined. This proposition state that if M is Top-injective, then the only topology for M is trivial topology. Is it right? Thank you for any help.

Answer & Explanation

Kathryn Moody

Kathryn Moody

Beginner2022-07-05Added 10 answers

Step 1
is h(x) well defined?
The key assumption is that f is injective (one-to-one), so that for each x X there is at most one element y Y such that f ( y ) = x.
Then, we break into cases on whether x f ( Y ). If x f ( Y ), then a unique y such that f ( y ) = x exists and we define h ( x ) = g ( y ). Otherwise, h ( x ) = i. In the quoted text, y is f 1 ( x ).
There's the question of why it's justified to break into cases on whether x f ( Y ). That's just the law of excluded middle.
Step 2
This proposition state that if M is Top-injective, then the only topology for M is trivial topology. Is it right?
That would be a poor way to phrase it. Any set larger than one element can be equipped with more than one topology, so for M large enough, it doesn't make sense to say something is "the only topology for M".
To even state that M is T o p -injective, M has to already have a given topology. Instead you could say that this given topology on M can only be the indiscrete topology if M is injective.
The other half of the proposition (whose proof is included in your question) proves (almost) the converse. It shows that a non-empty indiscrete space is injective. The empty indiscrete space isn't injective.

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