Discrete math logic / proof question. Is this statement logically equivalent: āˆƒš‘„(š‘ƒ(š‘„) ā†’ š‘„(š‘„)) and āˆ€š‘„š‘ƒ(š‘„) ā†’ āˆƒš‘„š‘„(š‘„)? Why?

Slovenujozk

Slovenujozk

Answered question

2022-09-06

Discrete math logic / proof question
Is this statement logically equivalent: āˆƒ š‘„ ( š‘ƒ ( š‘„ ) ā†’ š‘„ ( š‘„ ) ) and āˆ€ š‘„ š‘ƒ ( š‘„ ) ā†’ āˆƒ š‘„ š‘„ ( š‘„ )? Why? (I'm not sure how to proceed with this. I have to use the "universe of discourse" and not formal proof.)

Answer & Explanation

Peyton Atkins

Peyton Atkins

Beginner2022-09-07Added 13 answers

Step 1
āˆƒ x ( P ( x ) ā†’ Q ( x ) ) is equivalent to āˆƒ x ( Ā¬ P ( x ) āˆØ Q ( x ) ) , which is equivalent to āˆƒ x Ā¬ P ( x ) āˆØ āˆƒ x Q ( x ) .. This is equivalent to Ā¬ ( āˆ€ x P ( x ) āˆ§ Ā¬ ( āˆƒ x Q ( x ) ) .. From the definition of implication we then have the statement equivalent to āˆ€ x P ( x ) ā†’ āˆƒ x Q ( x ) .
Step 2
I am not sure what it means to use a universe of discourse to provide a proof of logical equivalency. Perhaps this means to select a certain universe of discourse (which is simply a nonempty collection of objects) and then describe how each of the above statements are equivalent through informal appeal to examples from the universe of discourse.

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