From a deck of 52 cards, how many ways are there to arrange a hand of 5 cards such that all 4 kings are in the hand (order doesn't matter) (the last card can be any non-king)

musicintimeln

musicintimeln

Open question

2022-08-14

I was doing a seemingly trivial question, and I though it was a simple application of the counting theorem but it turns out it doesn't work. Here's the question

From a deck of 52 cards, how many ways are there to arrange a hand of 5 cards such that all 4 kings are in the hand (order doesn't matter) (the last card can be any non-king)

Now here's my thought process as an application of the counting principle:
4 × 3 × 2 × 1 × 48 5 !
As we have 4! ways of placing the kings and then the last card can be from 48 other cards. Then we divide by 5! to remove the order. Unfortunately, this produces a non-integer so I was very sad indeed. However, it logically seems like it should work as it follows what I think is valid logic. Could someone explain how to get the correct answer (48) and also more importantly, why my logic was incorrect?

Answer & Explanation

Jazmyn Bean

Jazmyn Bean

Beginner2022-08-15Added 18 answers

When you write
4 × 3 × 2 × 1 × 48
you haven't chosen yet exactly where the non-king is in the sequence.

Yet when you divide by 5! you pretend that you have done so. That's where your argument fails.
vroos5p

vroos5p

Beginner2022-08-16Added 5 answers

Nice

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