My question is the following:Is there any way we can calculate ( by hand ) the inverse trigonometric

Damon Stokes

Damon Stokes

Answered question

2022-06-25

My question is the following:Is there any way we can calculate ( by hand ) the inverse trigonometric function of a trigonometric function so that we get the measurement of the angle to which the functions correspond to? In other ways : Let x be the measure of the angle x=arcsine(sine x) Is there any algorithm for finding x ? I have been searching the internet for an answer , but it seems that everyone is using a calculator..

Answer & Explanation

assumintdz

assumintdz

Beginner2022-06-26Added 22 answers

We have sin ( sin 1 x ) = x , x [ 1 , 1 ] and sin 1 ( sin x ) = x is true only for x [ π / 2 , π / 2 ]

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