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istupilo8k

istupilo8k

Answered question

2022-05-23

Can 2 u sin ( α β ) g cos β = u cos ( α β ) g sin β be reduced to 2 tan ( α β ) tan β = 1?
The closest I can get is:
tan α tan β 2 tan 2 β = 1
Is this correct so far?

Answer & Explanation

delalbaef

delalbaef

Beginner2022-05-24Added 10 answers

Cancelling
u , g 0
we have
2 tan ( α β ) tan ( β ) = 1
(after dividing by cos ( α β ) and multiplying by sin ( β )).
qtbabe9876a9

qtbabe9876a9

Beginner2022-05-25Added 4 answers

Your answer can be changed to asked form.
2 ( tan ( α β ) ) tan β = 1
2 ( tan α tan β ) tan β = 1 + tan α tan β
tan α tan β 2 tan 2 β = 1

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