Why does cos &#x2061;<!-- ⁡ --> ( &#x03C0;<!-- π --> <mrow class="MJX-TeXAtom-ORD"> /

radovanomy01jy

radovanomy01jy

Answered question

2022-06-03

Why does cos ( π / 2 ( π / 2 x ) ) = cos ( x )?
In proving sin ( π / 2 x ) = cos ( x ), in my book its given that
sin ( π 2 x ) = cos ( π 2 ( π 2 x ) ) = cos x
So I understand this but im confused about how cos x is being obtained from cos ( π / 2 ( π / 2 x ) ). Please explain it to me.

Answer & Explanation

Ryann Underwood

Ryann Underwood

Beginner2022-06-04Added 1 answers

If you distribute the minus sign you see that
π 2 ( π 2 x ) = π 2 π 2 + x = x

Do you have a similar question?

Recalculate according to your conditions!

Ask your question.
Get an expert answer.

Let our experts help you. Answer in as fast as 15 minutes.

Didn't find what you were looking for?