How to prove that <munderover> &#x2211;<!-- ∑ --> <mrow class="MJX-TeXAtom-ORD"> k

Roland Manning

Roland Manning

Answered question

2022-06-18

How to prove that k = 0 n 1 cos ( 2 π k n + ϕ ) = 0 for n N , n > 1

Answer & Explanation

hofyonlines5

hofyonlines5

Beginner2022-06-19Added 12 answers

k = 0 n 1 e i ( 2 π k / n + ϕ ) = e i ϕ k = 0 n 1 ( e i 2 π / n ) k = e i ϕ e i n 2 π / n 1 e i 2 π / n 1 = 0.
Leland Morrow

Leland Morrow

Beginner2022-06-20Added 11 answers

k = 0 n 1 cos ( 2 π k n + ϕ ) = R e ( k = 0 n 1 e 2 π i k n + i ϕ ) = R e ( e i ϕ k = 0 n 1 e 2 π i k n ) = R e ( e i ϕ 1 e 2 π i n n 1 e 2 π i n ) = R e ( e i ϕ 1 e 2 π i 1 e 2 π i n ) = R e ( 0 ) = 0
As long as n 2, 1 e 2 π i n 0

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