Proof attempt: Since f is irreducible and has a as root then K(a) is isomorphic to \frac{K[x]}{(f

Wanda Kane

Wanda Kane

Answered question

2022-01-14

Proof attempt: Since f is irreducible and has a as root then K(a) is isomorphic to K[x](f) with the isomorphism X+fa. And we can do the same for b and we get K(b) is isomorphic to K[x](f). Therefore K(a) is isomorphic with K(b).
a) f is irreducible and has a as root then K(a) is isomorphic to K[x](f) we took it for granted in the lecture but why does this hold?

Answer & Explanation

Papilys3q

Papilys3q

Beginner2022-01-15Added 34 answers

Step 1
For the first question, we just need to check the last condition w(a)=b. But just looking at the definition of the two isomorphisms in the composite
w:K(a)K[x](f)K(b)
the first maps a to x+(f), and the second maps x+(f) to b. So w(a)=b, as we desire.
For the second question, we start by considering the evaluation K-algebra homomorphism
ϕ:K[x]K(a)
which maps x to a.
Then since f(a)=0, every g(f) is mapped to zero by ϕ. (Just note that ϕ(g)=g(a).) Thus ϕ descends to a K-algebra homomorphism
ϕ~:K[x](f)K(a).
To show that
K(a)=K[x](f),
it just remains to show that
ϕ~:K[x](f)K(a)
is an isomorphism. Indeed, being a map from a field, ϕ~ is automatically injective.
Step 2
Finally, to check that ϕ~ is surjective, we just need a characterization of an arbitrary element of K(a). We'll use that
K(a)=K[a],
which is proved in many places (including I'm sure on this site). Given this there is essentially nothing to do: any element v of K[a] is just a polynomial in a with cofficients in K, say
v=3a2+42a3+6,
and replacing each occurrence of a with x gives a polynomial (e.g. 3x2+42x3+6) which is mapped to v by widetilde{ϕ}. This completes the proof.
Step 4
You might ask: ''Hang on, this seems to make sense but how did we use anywhere that f was a minimal polynomial?''. Indeed, so long as f was any polynomial over K with the root a we could still construct the map
ϕ~:K[x](f)K(a)
and see that this map is surjective. The problem is that we lose injectivity: f will in general of course not be irreducible (equivalently, up to a scalar the minimal polynomial of a), so K[x](f) won't be a field.

kaluitagf

kaluitagf

Beginner2022-01-16Added 38 answers

Step 1
To expand on lhf's comments: the polynomial ring K[X] has the property that for any commutative ring extension of the form K[α], there is a unique homomorphism
K[X]K[α]
fixing K and sending Xα. This is just a general property of polynomial rings. Now, if α is algebraic over K, then the kernel of this homomorphism is the ideal (fα) generated by its minimal polynomial, and by the fundamental theorem on homomorphisms we then have
K[α]=K[X](fα),
and the isomorphism fixes K and sends αX
Now if a,b are algebraic with the same minimal polynomial f, the corresponding ring extensions K[a] and K[b] are isomorphic to K[X](f), both via an isomorphism sending aX or bX and fixing K. Now just compose one of the isomorphisms with the inverse of the other one to get an isomorphism between K[a] and K[b] which fixes K and maps ab
Now finally note that K[α]=K(α) for algebraic α, so the isomorphism also applies to the field extensions in question.
alenahelenash

alenahelenash

Expert2022-01-24Added 556 answers

Step 1 Consider the homomorphism K[X]L P(X)P(a) Its image is K(a) and its kernel is the ideal (f), whence, by the First Isomorphism theorem, K[X](f)K(a) and similarly for K(b).

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