Is 3π2 the same as −π2? In trigonometric terms, they are the same

Step 1 I am not sure what you are asking π radians is 180∘ (32)π is 1.5π=270∘ −π2 is −(12)π=−90∘ therefore this be 360∘−90∘=270∘ So, from the same starting place on a circle, these appear to be the same.

Step 1 The angle of any direction when dx=0, dy=(negative) is 3π2 or −π2 So 1) atan⁡(−10.000000001)=−π2 (near) 2) atan⁡2(0,−1)=−π2 3) atan⁡(x,y)=π−π2×(1+sign(y2))−π4×(2+sign(x))×sign(y)−sign(x×y)×atan⁡((|x|−|y||x|+|y|)=π+π2×1×0−π4×2×(−1)−0×atan⁡(−11)=π+π2=3π2

Step 1 I am not sure what you are asking π radians is 180∘ (32)π is 1.5π=270∘ −π2 is −(12)π=−90∘ therefore this be 360∘−90∘=270∘ So, from the same starting place on a circle, these appear to be the same.

Step 1 The angle of any direction when dx=0, dy=(negative) is 3π2 or −π2 So 1) atan⁡(−10.000000001)=−π2 (near) 2) atan⁡2(0,−1)=−π2 3) atan⁡(x,y)=π−π2×(1+sign(y2))−π4×(2+sign(x))×sign(y)−sign(x×y)×atan⁡((|x|−|y||x|+|y|)=π+π2×1×0−π4×2×(−1)−0×atan⁡(−11)=π+π2=3π2

"Is 3π2 the same as −π2? In trigonometric..." solved and explained

Answered question

2022-01-17

\frac{3 π}{2}

the same as

- \frac{π}{2}

? In trigonometric terms, they are the same

Answer & Explanation

nick1337

Expert2022-01-17Added 777 answers

Step 1
I am not sure what you are asking
$π$ radians is $180^{\circ}$
$(\frac{3}{2}) π$ is $1.5 π = 270^{\circ}$
$- \frac{π}{2}$ is $- (\frac{1}{2}) π = - 90^{\circ}$
therefore this be $360^{\circ} - 90^{\circ} = 270^{\circ}$
So, from the same starting place on a circle, these appear to be the same.

star233

Skilled2022-01-17Added 403 answers

Step 1
The angle of any direction when
$d x = 0, d y = (negative)$ is $\frac{3 π}{2}$ or $- \frac{π}{2}$
So
1) $a \tan (- \frac{1}{0.000000001}) = - \frac{π}{2}$ (near)
2) $a \tan 2 (0, - 1) = - \frac{π}{2}$
3) $a \tan (x, y) = π - \frac{π}{2} \times (1 + s i g n (y^{2})) - \frac{π}{4} \times (2 + s i g n (x)) \times s i g n (y) - s i g n (x \times y) \times a \tan ((| x | - \frac{| y |}{| x |} + | y |) = π + \frac{π}{2} \times 1 \times 0 - \frac{π}{4} \times 2 \times (- 1) - 0 \times a \tan (- \frac{1}{1}) = π + \frac{π}{2} = \frac{3 π}{2}$

alenahelenash

Expert2022-01-24Added 556 answers

Step 1 No, its

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