From the definition of rational function f(x)=\frac{p(x)}{q(x)}, where P(x) and q(x) are polyn

Abiha Bellamy

Abiha Bellamy

Answered question

2022-02-17

From the definition of rational function f(x)=p(x)q(x), where P(x) and q(x) are polynomials and q(x)0
so for the function f(x)=x2+3x5 by the definition f(x) isnt rational since the numerator is not polynomial but by multiplying both numerator and denominator by x2 we get
f(x)=3x2+1x35x2 which is rational
and can we say that both functions are equal at every point?

Answer & Explanation

Clay Giles

Clay Giles

Beginner2022-02-18Added 4 answers

They are not equal at every point. They are equal where they are both defined, on the intersection of their domains, which is all real numbers except 0 and 5. (So they are not equal at 0 or at 5 since they aren't even defined there.)

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