How do I prove that the limit as one function goes to infinity is equal to another function?
I was
Erick Clay
Answered question
2022-05-22
How do I prove that the limit as one function goes to infinity is equal to another function? I was playing around with the integral and noticed that it is always except for the singular case . So I could pick n arbitrarily close to and the formula works, but as soon as I hit it breaks (so to speak)! Here's my work thus far:
Working with with the initial condition I got:
So I figure the following could be true:
How can I prove that as I take the two functions are equivalent?
Or equivalently,
Answer & Explanation
Haleigh Vega
Beginner2022-05-23Added 13 answers
After re-writing, you get
Now you can use Taylor expansions, for instance, to get
Then
wanaopatays
Beginner2022-05-24Added 5 answers
The key to this is to be careful with the integral, and in particular, the limits of integration. Note that
So now we want to compute
By making a change of variables, , we get
which is known to be the natural logarithm. A similar type of thing happens with the integral