How do I prove that the limit as one function goes to infinity is equal to another function? I was

Erick Clay

Erick Clay

Answered question

2022-05-22

How do I prove that the limit as one function goes to infinity is equal to another function?
I was playing around with the integral x n d x and noticed that it is always x n 1 n 1 + c except for the singular case n = 1. So I could pick n arbitrarily close to 1 and the formula works, but as soon as I hit 1 it breaks (so to speak)!
Here's my work thus far:
x ( n + 1 ) / n d x = n x 1 / n + c
Working with n = 100 with the initial condition y ( 1 ) = 0 I got:
100 x 1 / 100 + c = 0
100 + c = 0
c = 100
So I figure the following could be true:
n x 1 / n + n ln x
How can I prove that as I take n the two functions are equivalent?
lim n n x 1 / n + n = ln x
Or equivalently,
e lim n n x 1 / n + n = x

Answer & Explanation

Haleigh Vega

Haleigh Vega

Beginner2022-05-23Added 13 answers

After re-writing, you get
n x 1 / n + n = n ( 1 e 1 / n ln x ) .
Now you can use Taylor expansions, for instance, to get
n ( 1 e 1 / n ln x ) = n ( 1 ( 1 1 n ln x + O ( n 2 ) ) = ln x + O ( n 1 ) .
Then
lim n n n x 1 / n = ln x .
wanaopatays

wanaopatays

Beginner2022-05-24Added 5 answers

The key to this is to be careful with the integral, and in particular, the limits of integration. Note that
1 t x n = t n + 1 1 n + 1 , n 1
So now we want to compute
lim n 1 t n + 1 1 n + 1 .
By making a change of variables, n n 1 , we get
lim n 0 t n 1 n
which is known to be the natural logarithm.
A similar type of thing happens with the integral
lim n 1 sin ( n x ) sin ( x ) d x .

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