How to solve the inequality n ! &#x2264;<!-- ≤ --> n <mrow class="MJX-TeXAtom-ORD"

Amber Quinn

Amber Quinn

Answered question

2022-06-15

How to solve the inequality n ! n n 2 ?

Answer & Explanation

nuvolor8

nuvolor8

Beginner2022-06-16Added 32 answers

Here's an elementary proof, with some details left out to be filled in by you :).
Taking logarithms, you want to show that
S n = log 2 + log 3 + log n ( n 2 ) log n .
Note that there are n 1 terms on the left, each less than log n. So you only have to "squeeze out" an additional term log n. This can be done as follows:
Let k = n , that is, k is the largest integer such that k n < k + 1. Split the sum on the left to obtain:
log 2 + log 3 + + log k + log ( k + 1 ) + + log n
The terms up to log k are all log n = 1 2 log n and there are k 1 such terms. The remaining terms are all log k and there are n k such terms.
Add everything up. The result is
S n ( k 1 ) log n 2 + ( n k ) log n = ( n k + 1 2 ) log n .
Now determine for which k and therefore for which n this implies S n ( n 2 ) log n. You'll notice that you have proved the inequality for n 9 or so. As Robert Israel already pointed out, the inequality actually holds for n 5. These remaining cases can be checked by direct computation.
Leland Morrow

Leland Morrow

Beginner2022-06-17Added 11 answers

Here's a proof by induction.
First, we need to verify the base case: 5 ! = 120 < 125 = 5 3
Now assume the induction hypothesis n ! < n n 2 is true, then we need to prove
( n + 1 ) ! < ( n + 1 ) n 1 n ! < ( n + 1 ) n 2 .
But by induction hypothesis and the fact n < n + 1 we have,
n ! < n n 2 < ( n + 1 ) n 2 .
Therefore ( n + 1 ) ! < ( n + 1 ) n 1 and we are done.

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