Proof e x </msup> = exp &#x2061;<!-- ⁡ --> ( x ) ? Define

mistergoneo7

mistergoneo7

Answered question

2022-07-03

Proof e x = exp ( x )?
Define
ln ( x ) = 1 x 1 t
Assume I have proven that ln x is one-to-one and therefore has an inverse exp ( x )
Define e as:
ln e = 1
Now, if you have no other notion of exponentials, or logarithms, how could define what e x means and show that its the inverse of ln x?
You are allowed to assume the logarithmic product and quotient property.
Thanks for the help.

Answer & Explanation

Hayley Mccarthy

Hayley Mccarthy

Beginner2022-07-04Added 19 answers

Writing f for ln and g for its inverse, you can show easily that g is infinitely differentiable and that g ( n ) ( 0 ) = 1. This gives you the Taylor series g ( x ) = n = 0 x n / n !. After that, everything follows from the classical analysis of g that is performed in every elementary real variables text (see Rudin's Real & Complex Analysis, for example).
As I recall, the introductory "Chapter 0" of that text is a marvel of succinct mathematics that fully constructs the exponential function from scratch. It's really a pleasure to read and I'm always awed at his insight every time I read it.
logiski9s

logiski9s

Beginner2022-07-05Added 1 answers

Full disclosure: this is essentially a rewrite of MPW's answer.
Defining e x as k = 0 x k k ! makes sense, in a way it's the most fundamental/general definition because it can be applied to any system for which addition, multiplication and scaling are defined. Reals, complex numbers, quaternions, matrices, etc.
Now, from calculus we have this result:
d d x [ f 1 ( x ) ] = 1 f ( f 1 ( x ) )
By fundamental theorem of calculus we obtain ln ( x ) as 1 x , hence:
d d x [ ln 1 ( x ) ] = ln 1 ( x )
It follows (formally by induction) that the nth derivative of ln 1 ( x ) is ln 1 ( x ) and hence the nth derivative at x = 0 is ln 1 ( 0 ) = 1
Thus we get the Taylor series:
ln 1 ( x ) = k = 0 x k k ! = e x

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