Show that ln(x)<=x−1

Kymani Hatfield

Kymani Hatfield

Answered question

2022-10-29

Show that ln ( x ) x 1
I'm not really sure how to show this, it's obvious if we draw a graph of it but that won't suffice here. Could we somehow use the fact that e x is the inverse? I mean, if e x 1 x then would the statement be proved?

Answer & Explanation

Bobby Mcconnell

Bobby Mcconnell

Beginner2022-10-30Added 8 answers

Yes, one can use
(1) e x 1 + x ,
which holds for all x R (and can be dubbed the most useful inequality involving the exponential function). This again can be shown in several ways. If you defined e x as limit lim n ( 1 + x n ) n , then ( 1 ) follows from Bernoullis inequality: ( 1 + t ) n > 1 + n t if t > 1 and n > 0.
To show that ln ( x ) x 1 for all x > 0, just substitute ln x for x in (1).
Hunter Shah

Hunter Shah

Beginner2022-10-31Added 2 answers

Define for x > 0
f ( x ) = ln x x + 1 f ( x ) = 1 x 1 = 0 x = 1
and since f ( x ) = 1 x 2 < 0 x > 0 , we get a maximal point.
But also
lim x 0 + f ( x ) = = lim x f ( x )
Thus, the above is a global maximal point and
x > 0 , f ( x ) f ( 1 ) = 0

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