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Berghofaei0e

Berghofaei0e

Answered question

2022-04-10

For every differentiable function f : R R , there is a function g : R × R R such that g ( f ( x ) , f ( x ) ) = 0 for every x and for every differentiable function h : R R holds that
being true that for every x R , g ( h ( x ) , h ( x ) ) = 0 and h ( 0 ) = f ( 0 ) implies that h ( x ) = f ( x ) for every x R .
i.e every differentiable function f is a solution to some first order differential equation that has translation symmetry.

Answer & Explanation

Carleigh Shaffer

Carleigh Shaffer

Beginner2022-04-11Added 10 answers

It's easy to construct a differentiable function f ( x ) such that f ( 0 ) = f ( 1 ) and f ( 0 ) = f ( 1 ) but f ( 1 ) f ( 2 ). If f ( x ) satisfies the differential equation g ( y ( x ) , y ( x ) ) = 0, then so does h ( x ) = f ( x + 1 ), and h ( 0 ) = f ( 0 ) but h ( 1 ) f ( 1 ).
EDIT: In response to your comment, here's another example. Consider a differentiable function f ( x ) such that f ( 0 ) = f ( 1 ) = f ( 2 ), f ( 0 ) = f ( 1 ) = f ( 2 ) = 0, and f ( 1 / 2 ) f ( 3 / 2 ), and let
h ( x ) = { f ( x + 1 )  if  x [ 0 , 1 ) f ( x 1 )  if  x [ 1 , 2 ) f ( x )  otherwise
motorinum6fh9v

motorinum6fh9v

Beginner2022-04-12Added 3 answers

If you restrict yourself to algebraic differential equations, Hölder's theorem says that the Γ function (or equivalently its reciprocal if you want it to be differentiable everywhere) does not satisfy one.

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