Let phi(s):=int_0^(oo) exp(-st)g(t)dt for g in L_1(0,oo). Assume that phi(s)=0 for s in [0,1/2). How to prove that phi(s)=0 for every s in [0,oo).

teevaituinomakw

teevaituinomakw

Answered question

2022-09-09

Let ϕ ( s ) := 0 exp ( s t ) g ( t ) d t for g L 1 ( 0 , ). Assume that ϕ ( s ) = 0 for s [ 0 , 1 2 ). How to prove that ϕ ( s ) = 0 for every s [ 0 , )

Answer & Explanation

Aydin Rodgers

Aydin Rodgers

Beginner2022-09-10Added 12 answers

I claim that ϕ is an entire function.
Indeed let γ be a simply closed curve in the complex plane.
Then γ ϕ ( z ) d z = γ 0 exp ( z t ) g ( t ) d z d t = 0 γ exp ( z t ) g ( t ) d z d t by Fubini's theorem.
But the function exp ( z t ) is entire as a function of z.
Hence, by the Cauchy-Goursat theorem γ exp ( z t ) d z vanishes for all t ( 0 , )
Therefore, γ ϕ ( z ) d z = 0 for every simply closed curve γ in the complex plane.
Moreras theorem, then, implies that ϕ is entire.
Now since ϕ is an analytic function that vanishes on a set with accumulation point we get that ϕ is identically zero by the uniqueness theorem for analytic functions.

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