Let bar(f):=int_0^(oo) f * e^(−sx)dx be the Laplace transform of f, where s is a complex number. Is there anyway we can write hat(f):=int_0^(oo) f * e^(x-sx) dx in terms of bar(f)?

Modelfino0g

Modelfino0g

Answered question

2022-09-11

Let f ~ := 0 f e s x d x be the Laplace transform of f, where s is a complex number.
Is there anyway we can write f ^ := 0 f e x s x d x in terms of f ~ ?

Answer & Explanation

Kenny Kramer

Kenny Kramer

Beginner2022-09-12Added 14 answers

f ~ ( s 1 ) = 0 f ( x ) e x s x d x

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