L(f ** g)=L(f) * L(g) => L^(-1)(F * G)=L^(-1) (F) ** L^(-1)(G) I fail to see why that's obvious, is there some way to see it algebraically?

profesorluissp

profesorluissp

Answered question

2022-09-08

I'm having a hard time figuring why:
L ( f g ) = L ( f ) L ( g ) L 1 ( F G ) = L 1 ( F ) L 1 ( G )
I fail to see why that's obvious, is there some way to see it algebraically?

Answer & Explanation

detegerex

detegerex

Beginner2022-09-09Added 16 answers

L ( f L 1 ( F ) g L 1 ( G ) ) = L ( f ) F L ( g ) G
Now apply Laplace inverse on both sides
jatericrimson8b

jatericrimson8b

Beginner2022-09-10Added 2 answers

Substitute f = L 1 ( F ) and g = L 1 ( G ), then apply the inverse transform to both sides of the equality.

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