Try to get Inverse Laplace Transform of f(s)=(1)/(s-e^(-s))

Iris Vaughn

Iris Vaughn

Answered question

2022-10-13

Try to get Inverse Laplace Transform of f ( s ) = 1 s e s

Answer & Explanation

Alannah Yang

Alannah Yang

Beginner2022-10-14Added 22 answers

1 s e s = 1 s 1 1 1 s e s = 1 s [ 1 + 1 s e s + 1 s 2 e 2 s + ]
and
L 1 ( 1 s ) = 1 , L 1 ( 1 s k + 1 e s k ) = ( x k ) k k ! 1 k ( x )
so, by the linearity of L 1 , the inverse Laplace transform of 1 s e s is a continuous and piecewise-smooth function, always greater than 1 and close to e x W ( 1 ) 1 + W ( 1 ) for x ( 0 , 10 ). On the other hand
lim x e x W ( 1 ) 1 + W ( 1 ) = 0 1 = lim x ( L 1 1 s e s ) ( x ) .

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