Compute int_0^(oo) (cos(x))/(x^2+a^2)dx, for a in RR using the Laplace Transform.

Kevin Charles

Kevin Charles

Answered question

2022-10-15

Compute 0 cos ( x ) x 2 + a 2 d x , for a R using the Laplace Transform.

Answer & Explanation

Jovanni Salinas

Jovanni Salinas

Beginner2022-10-16Added 18 answers

0 cos x t 1 + t 2 d t = π 2 e | x |
To transform your integral into this form use x t a. Now we can begin by taking the laplace transform of the integral
L ( I ) = 0 ( 0 cos ( x t ) 1 + t 2 d t ) e s x d x
The next step is to interchange the limits (fubinis theorem). Since | I | , converges in the Riemann sense, so does I.
L ( I ) = 0 ( 0 cos ( x t ) 1 + t 2 e s x d x ) d t = 0 1 1 + t 2 ( 0 cos ( x t ) e s x d x ) d t = 0 1 1 + t 2 s s 2 + t 2 d t
Where we used the laplace tranform of cos ( ω x ) in the last transition. The last expression can easilly be solved by partial fractions
1 1 + t 2 s s 2 + t 2 = s 1 s 2 ( 1 s 2 + t 2 1 1 + t 2 )
To obtain the final answer you have to take the inverse-laplace transform of your integral.
| I | 0 0 e s x 1 + t 2 d t d x = 0 [ π 2 e s x ] 0 d t d x = [ π 2 s e s x ] 0 = π 2 s

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