Laplace transform of int_1^(oo) (cos t)/(t) dt

cousinhaui

cousinhaui

Answered question

2022-10-21

Is the result of the of Laplace transform of 1 cos t t d t equal to 1 cos t t d t s ?

Answer & Explanation

erkvisin7s

erkvisin7s

Beginner2022-10-22Added 12 answers

Yes, it is. Note that you have a definite integral which, indeed, converges (it is a variant of the Cosine Integral). As such, you are finding the Laplace transform of a constant function. Of course, for a function f with rule f ( t ) = a, its Laplace transform is F ( s ) = a s

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