I can not figure out why L^(-1)((1)/(s^2)(s-a)/(s+a))=-t+2/a-2/a e^(-at)

Adrian Brown

Adrian Brown

Answered question

2022-11-16

I have a very easy inverse Laplace transform.
I can not figure out why
L 1 ( 1 s 2 s a s + a ) = t + 2 a 2 a e a t
Is there a conversion I don't see?

Answer & Explanation

Justin Blake

Justin Blake

Beginner2022-11-17Added 11 answers

f ( s ) = 1 s 2 s a s + a
f ( s ) = 1 s ( 1 s s a s + a )
f ( s ) = 1 s ( A s + B s + a )
f ( s ) = 1 s ( ( A + B ) s + A a s ( s + a ) )
Where A+B=1 and A = 1 B = 2 so that we have:
f ( s ) = 1 s ( 1 s + 2 s + a )
f ( s ) = 1 s 2 + 2 s ( s + a )
f ( s ) = 1 s 2 + 2 a ( 1 s 1 s + a )
Apply inverse Laplace transform now.
f ( t ) = t + 2 a ( 1 e a t )

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