Generalize Lagrange's mean value theorem for f:A -> R^n , differentiable in n=1. What I have so far is that if n=1, we can write gi(t)=f(x_1,..tx_i,..,x_n, where x_j are any real numbers and x_i is 1.

reinzogoq

reinzogoq

Answered question

2022-09-10

Generalize Lagrange's mean value theorem for f : A R n , differentiable in n = 1.What I have so far is that if n = 1, we can write g i ( t ) = f ( x 1 , . . t x i , . . , x n , where x j are any real numbers and x i is 1. We have g ( t ) = D f ( t ) ( 0 , . . , 1 , . . .0 ) = f x i ( t ), And since g i ( t ) : R R , we can apply the single variable mean value theorem to say that there exists a point c x i [ a , b ] s.t f x i ( c x i ) = g i ( c x i ) = g i ( a ) g i ( b ) a b , for any partial derivative. However, For any partial derivative we get a different c x i .
Also, if n > 1, And I`d know how to handle the n = 1 case, break down f to n different functions, apply the n = 1 to each of them seperately, but then again, we get n different points c which aren't necessarily the same..
Is this a good way to try and generalize the Lagrange`s Mean Value theorem for multivariable functions?

Answer & Explanation

Anabelle Hicks

Anabelle Hicks

Beginner2022-09-11Added 13 answers

You are stuck, because there is no solution to this problem! As you already mentioned, you will get different c x i s for different i.
As a counterexample, choose f : [ 0 , 2 π ] R 2 with f ( x ) = ( cos ( x ) , sin ( x ) ) . Then f ( 2 π ) f ( 0 ) = ( 0 , 0 ) , but f ( x ) = ( sin ( x ) , cos ( x ) ) never assumes this value, as sin and cos have no mutual roots.

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