Inside an insulated vessel at 1atm there is water at 100°C and a metal rod at 100°C, since temperature gradient is null there is no net heat transfer and water still liquid. In other words, in order to transmit latent heat, there must be a temperature difference. Am I right ?

divamannyxv

divamannyxv

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2022-08-31

Inside an insulated vessel at 1atm there is water at 100°C and a metal rod at 100°C, since temperature gradient is null there is no net heat transfer and water still liquid. In other words, in order to transmit latent heat, there must be a temperature difference. Am I right ?

Answer & Explanation

Simekr7

Simekr7

Beginner2022-09-01Added 6 answers

That is correct. Heat is energy transfer due solely to temperature difference.
Since you asked this question specifically in connection with latent heat, I think you may be confusing the requirements for heat transfer to occur with the results of that heat transfer in terms of temperature changes.
If the rod was at a temperature greater than 100 C then it could transfer heat to the water. But since the water is at its boiling point that transfer would not initially cause an increase the temperature of the water. Instead it would convert some liquid water to vapor vapor (steam) at constant temperature and pressure. That heat is then called the latent heat of vaporization.
On the other hand, if the water was below 100 C at 1 atm, heat transfer from the rod to the water would initially increase the temperature of the water until it reached its boiling point. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the water would be determined by the specific heat of water.
Hope this helps.

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