The antiderivative of sin(1/x) How to prove that the function f <mo stretchy="false">( x <

Caitlyn Cole

Caitlyn Cole

Answered question

2022-05-02

The antiderivative of sin(1/x)
How to prove that the function f ( x ) = sin 1 x for x 0 , f ( 0 ) = 0 has an antiderivative? This means F ( x ) = 0 x sin ( 1 / t ) d t has derivative 0 at x = 0, but I have no idea how to prove it.

Answer & Explanation

hadnya1qd

hadnya1qd

Beginner2022-05-03Added 15 answers

Step 1
I just blogged another solution to this question in my blog. The idea is to consider the following function
G ( x ) = { x 2 cos 1 x ,  if  x 0 , 0 ,  if  x = 0.
which is differentiable. Clearly,
G ( x ) = { sin 1 x + 2 x cos 1 x ,  if  x 0 , 0 ,  if  x = 0.
Step 2
Hence, G = f + h where
h ( x ) = { 2 x cos 1 x ,  if  x 0 , 0 ,  if  x = 0.
Since h is continuous, it has antiderivative H, thus giving us f = ( G H ) . In other words, G H is an antiderivative of f.
wellnesshaus4n4

wellnesshaus4n4

Beginner2022-05-04Added 24 answers

Explanation:
We can substitute u = t 1 to get a more convenient expression:
| F ( x ) F ( 0 ) x | = 1 | x | | 0 x sin ( t 1 ) d t | (symmetry) = 1 | x | | 1 / | x | sin u u 2 d u | = 1 | x | | [ cos u u 2 ] 1 / | x | 2 1 / | x | cos u u 3 d u | = 1 | x | | | x | 2 cos 1 | x | 2 1 / | x | cos u u 3 d u | | x | + 1 | x | 1 / | x | 2 u 3 d u = 2 | x | .
Thus F ( 0 ) = 0

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