Function with compact support whose iterated antiderivatives also have compact support Notation: If

Mauricio Hayden

Mauricio Hayden

Answered question

2022-05-25

Function with compact support whose iterated antiderivatives also have compact support
Notation: If f : R R is continuous, let us denote I f : R R its indefinite integral from 0, i.e., ( I f ) ( x ) = 0 x f ( t ) d t, and iteratively I k + 1 f = I ( I k f ).
Remark: If f is a continuous function with support contained in the open interval ]0,1[ then If has support contained in ]0,1[ iff ( I f ) ( 1 ) = 0.
Main question: Does there exist a C function f with support contained in the open interval ]0,1[ such that I k f has support contained in ]0,1[ for every k 0, or, equivalently, ( I k f ) ( 1 ) = 0 for all k 0?
Equivalent formulation: Does there exists a sequence ( f k ) k Z of C functions each with support contained in the open interval ]0,1[, such that f k 1 is the derivative of f k ?
Weaker question: Does there at least exist a continuous function f with the properties demanded in the main question?
Stronger question: Does there exist a C function f with compact support, whose Fourier transform vanishes identically on a nontrivial interval?
(A positive answer to the latter would imply a positive answer to the main question: rescale the function so its support is contained in ]0,1[, multiply it appropriately so its Fourier transform vanishes in a neighborhood of 0, and observe that the Fourier transform of I k f is, up to constants, ξ k times that of f.)
Edit: Before someone points out that the identically zero function fits the bill, I should add that I want my functions to not vanish identically.

Answer & Explanation

Mya Hurst

Mya Hurst

Beginner2022-05-26Added 13 answers

Step 1
I think it is not possible even for f only measurable and bounded. Indeed,
( I k f ) ( x ) = x 0 = 0 < x 1 < . . . < x k = x f ( x 1 ) d x 1 . . . d x k = 0 x f ( x 1 ) ( x 1 < . . . < x k = x d x 2 . . . d x k ) d x 1
Step 2
Now since a < y 1 . . . < y k < b d y 1 . . . d y k = ( b a ) k 0 < y 1 . . . < y k < 1 d y 1 . . . d y k = ( b a ) k k !
we get: ( I k f ) ( 1 ) = 0 1 f ( y ) ( 1 y ) k 1 ( k 1 ) ! d y .
If this was vanishing for any k then for all polynomial P we would get:
0 1 f ( y ) P ( y ) d y = 0
and therefore f is 0 almost everywhere.
The hypothesis that f is bounded is probably not necessary (in fact if f is locally integrable, I 1 f is bounded continuous and we can apply the previous argument to I 1 f.)

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