I know that the above limit is 1 from Wolfram but I had no proper way to prove. I attempted a proof
ropij5ssas
Answered question
2022-06-04
I know that the above limit is 1 from Wolfram but I had no proper way to prove. I attempted a proof and it is as follows:
Answer & Explanation
Konner Sloan
Beginner2022-06-05Added 3 answers
Your statement
makes absolutely no sense. The numerator on the RHS
is a fixed constant. Moreover, your reuse of n as the variable of integration is inappropriate. Finally, the distribution of the limit into the numerator and denominator is also incorrect; e.g.,
Instead, recall that for all
so that
Then integrating this expression from to yields
But the middle integral is simply , since for all . Therefore, we have established
for positive integers , and for , obviously . Now summing from to n and observing the telescoping, we get
This allows us to obtain a sufficiently tight bound by which the limit may be established through the squeeze theorem: