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Gabriella Sellers

Gabriella Sellers

Answered question

2022-06-26

prove that a b f   + f ( a ) f ( b )   f 1 = b f ( b ) a f ( a )
Let 0 < a < b   let f > 0 be continuous and strictly increasing function on [a,b]. Prove that a b f   + f ( a ) f ( b )   f 1 = b f ( b ) a f ( a ).
How to approach this problem . Any Hint? I am suppose to do it without using antiderivatives.

Answer & Explanation

Carmelo Payne

Carmelo Payne

Beginner2022-06-27Added 25 answers

Step 1
Add any left Riemann sum with partition ( a , x 1 , , x n 1 , b ) for the first integral to a right Riemann sum with partition ( f ( a ) , f ( x 1 ) , , f ( x n 1 ) , f ( b ) ) for the second integral to get
j = 1 n f ( x j 1 ) ( x j x j 1 ) + j = 1 n f 1 ( f ( x j ) ) ( f ( x j ) f ( x j 1 ) ) = j = 1 n f ( x j 1 ) ( x j x j 1 ) + j = 1 n x j ( f ( x j ) f ( x j 1 ) ) = j = 1 n ( x j f ( x j ) x j 1 f ( x j 1 ) ) = b f ( b ) a f ( a )
The LHS converges to a b f + f ( a ) f ( b ) f 1 as the partition norm goes to 0 and the RHS stays the same.
Boilanubjaini8f

Boilanubjaini8f

Beginner2022-06-28Added 6 answers

Think about the strictly growing function's graph y = f ( x ). In this graph, the points (a, f(a)) and (b, f(b)) are intersected.
The area under the curve y = f ( x ) from x = a to x = b is given by  a b f ( x )  d x . It will be the graph of the inverse function when looking at the same graph "from" the y-axis f  1 . The area under the inverse curve from y = f ( a ) to y = f ( b ) is given by  f ( a ) f ( b ) f  1 ( y )  d y . The sum of these two areas is  a b f ( x )  d x +  f ( a ) f ( b ) f  1 ( y )  d y ..

Today, the following methods can also be used to locate this area: Take into account the rectangle with two corners at (0,0) and (b,f(b)). This's area is specified by bf (b). Now if we remove the area af(a) of the smaller rectangle with corners at (0,0) and (a,f(a)) we get b f ( b )  a f ( a ) ..
The area that we estimated earlier using integrals corresponds to this one. This makes them equal.

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