Verifying Fourier series of antiderivative of a function

joyoshibb

joyoshibb

Answered question

2022-08-10

Verifying Fourier series of antiderivative of a function
The function is f ( x ) = { 0 , π x 0 x , 0 < x π .
The Fourier series of the function is:
1 2 ( π 2 ) + n = 1 ( 1 ) n 1 π n 2 cos ( n x ) + ( 1 ) n + 1 n sin ( n x ).
Since the function can be integrated termwise, the Fourier series for the antiderivative π x f ( x ) d x is:
1 2 ( π 2 ) ( x + π ) + n = 1 1 n ( ( 1 ) n 1 π n 2 sin ( n x ) + ( 1 ) n n ( cos ( n x ) ( 1 ) n ) )
The antiderivative of the function is F ( x ) = { 0 , π x 0 x 2 2 , 0 < x π . The Fourier series of the antiderivative is:
1 2 ( π 2 6 ) + n = 1 1 n ( ( ( 1 ) n 1 π n 2 ( 1 ) n π 2 ) sin ( n x ) + ( 1 ) n n cos ( n x ) )
Where I am missing? Why I am having wrong answer. Even if I did some mistakes in calculations, what's with x term obtained in piece wise integration. Thanks in advance.

Answer & Explanation

Rose Holmes

Rose Holmes

Beginner2022-08-11Added 9 answers

Step 1
From comments, What you have is:
π 4 x + π 2 4 + 1 n ( ( 1 ) n 1 π n 2 sin ( n x ) + ( 1 ) n n cos ( n x ) ) 1 n 2
The Fourier expansion of x on [ π , π ] is x = 2 ( 1 ) n n sin ( n x ) and using the fact that 1 n 2 = π 2 6 .
Step 2
It is obttained that, π 4 ( 2 ( 1 ) n n sin ( n x ) ) + π 2 4 + 1 n ( ( 1 ) n 1 π n 2 sin ( n x ) + ( 1 ) n n cos ( n x ) ) π 2 6
π 2 12 + 1 n ( ( ( 1 ) n 1 π n 2 ( 1 ) n π 2 ) sin ( n x ) + ( 1 ) n n cos ( n x ) )
Now both results conicides.

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