the equation f(x)′−f(x)=0 holds for the exponential function on the complex plane.Now what i dont understand is this. "let f(x)=a_0+a_1X+a_2X^2........ f is a polynomial with infinite degree ".Why is that. I dont understand how he came to that conclusion?I mean Why define it that way?.MAybe he could solve the ODE on the real numbers and avoid this "out of nowhere" polynomial or is there a connection?

Find the local maximum and minimum values and saddle points of the function. If you have three-dimensional graphing software, graph the function with a domain and viewpoint that reveal all the important aspects of the function
$f(x,y)=x^3-6xy+8y^3$

$\frac{1}{\sec <!--\; \; -->(x)}$ in derivative?

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