Prove \csc(x)=\sum_{k=-\infty}^\infty\frac{(-1)^k}{x+k\pi}

Motalli21

Motalli21

Answered question

2022-01-21

Prove
csc(x)=k=(1)kx+kπ

Answer & Explanation

Wilson Mitchell

Wilson Mitchell

Beginner2022-01-22Added 8 answers

We can use also this well known summation formula (a consequence of the residue theorem):
kZ(1)kf(k)=[residues of  πcsc(πz)f(z) at f(z)s  poles]
so if we take f(z)=1x+zπ we get
kz(1)kx+kπ=Resz=xπ(πcsc(πz)x+zπ)=csc(x)
as wanted.
lorugb

lorugb

Beginner2022-01-23Added 13 answers

In this answer (using complex methods) and in this answer (using real methods), it is shown in detail that
k=1z+k=πcot(πz) (1)
(1) is the sum for even and odd k. The sum for even k would be
k=1z+2k=π2cot(πz2) (2)
The sum for even minus the sum for odd would be twice (2) minus (1)
k=(1)kz+k=πcot(πz2)πcot(πz)
=π1+cos(πz)sin(πz)πcos(πz)sin(πz)
=πcsc(πz)
Therefore,
k=(1)kz+kπ=csc(z)
RizerMix

RizerMix

Expert2022-01-27Added 656 answers

We begin by expanding the function cos(xy) in a Fourier series, cos(xy)=a0/2+k=1akcos(ky) (1) for x[π/π]. The Fourier coefficients (1) are given by ak=2π0πcos(xy)cos(ky)dy =1π(1)ksin(πx)(1x+k+1xk) (2) Substituting (2) into (1), setting y=0, and dividing by sin(πx) reveals πcsc(πx)=1y+n=1(1)k(1xk+1x+k) =k=(1)kxk =k=(1)kx+k (3) Finally, enforcing the substitution xx/π and dividing by π in (3) yields the coveted result csc(x)=k=(1)kx+kπ

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