What is the general solution of \(\displaystyle{\frac{{{d}{f{{\left({x}\right)}}}}}{{{\left.{d}{x}\right.}}}}={f{{\left({x}-{a}\right)}}}\)?

melalcolicaoh3

melalcolicaoh3

Answered question

2022-03-15

What is the general solution of
df(x)dx=f(xa)?

Answer & Explanation

Keith Steele

Keith Steele

Beginner2022-03-16Added 2 answers

Step 1
f(x) can be written in terms of operators as D[f], where D is the derivative operator, a linear operator. f(x+a) can be written in terms of operators as Sa[f], where Sa is the shift operator, another linear operator. Now, Sa can be written in terms of D. Think about this: you can expand f(x+a) as a Taylor series centered at x, hence
f(x+a)=m=0(Dm[f])(x)[(x+a)x]mm!
=m=0amDm[f]m!(x)
Since this is true for any analytic function f, it means that
Sa=m=0amDmm!=exp(aD)=eaD.
This is important for the equation solving. Now, the equation can be rewritten simply as D[f]=Sa[f],, which is equivalent to D[f]Sa[f]=0,, which is equivalent to (DSa)[f]=(DeaD)[f]=0..
Thus, solving your equation is equivalent to finding the null space, also called the kernel, of the operator DeaD.. Now, consider the eigenvalue equations
D[f]=λ{f}
and
eaD[f]=eaλf,
where λC.. Subtract the latter from the former, and you have that
(DeaD)[f]=(λeaλ)f,
giving an eigenvalue equation for DeaD.. Solving (DeaD)[f]=0
is then equivalent to finding the eigenvectors (eigenfunctions) of
D=eaD such that their eigenvalue is 0. This amounts to finding the eigenfunctions of D that correspond to the eigenvalues λ such that.
λeaλ=0.. We know the eigenfunctions of D are given by Ceλ{x},, so we merely want those precise exponentials with λ solving the equation
λeaλ=0.
Now onto solving the latter equation. Notice that it is equivalent to
λ=eaλ, which is equivalent to λ{e}aλ=1, which is equivalent to aλ{e}aλ=a. Taking into account the complex branches of the Lambert W, this means
Wn(a)=aλ,
meaning that
λ=Wn(a)a.
Therefore, for some sequence of Cn,
f(x)=nZCWn(a)ax
is the complete solution family to the equation
f(x)=f(x+a).
In the special case that a=π2, we get that
W0(π2)=iπ2,
hence
W0(π2)π2=i,
so we have that f(x)=Ceix is one of the solutions given. This means sin(x) and cos(x) are solutions, as expected. There are other solutions, but there is no nice way of expressing them, due to the nature of the Lambert W map.

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