How to find the limit \lim_{n\to\infty}\prod_{j=1}^n ( 1+\frac{1}{j} (\cos (\frac{tj}{n} )-1

Travis Caldwell

Travis Caldwell

Answered question

2022-04-23

How to find the limit
limnj=1n(1+1j(cos(tjn)1))

Answer & Explanation

Tatairfzk

Tatairfzk

Beginner2022-04-24Added 12 answers

Put an=j=1n(1+1j(cos(tjn)1)). Then
bn=lnan=j=1nln(1+1j(cos(tjn)1))
Using the inequality xx22ln(1+x)x for x1, we get
j=1n1j(cos(tjn)1)12j=1n1j2(cos(tjn)1)2bnj=1n1j(cos(tjn)1)
Put cn=j=1n1j(cos(tjn)1)
cn=1nj=1nnj(cos(tjn)1)=1nk=1nf(kn)
with f(x)=cos(tx)1x, which can be extended by continuity to [0,1]. Hence we get limncn=01f(x)dx=01cos(tx)1xdx. Now, since
j=1n1j2(cos(tjn)1)2=1n2j=1nn2j2(cos(tjn)1)2
is 1n times a Riemann sum of a continuous function (after extension), it's limit n is 0, and we conclude by the squeeze theorem.

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