How to show that for C , d &gt; 0 , the integral <msubsup> &#x222B;<!-- ∫ -->

Emmy Knox

Emmy Knox

Answered question

2022-06-11

How to show that for C , d > 0, the integral
1 exp ( x d 2 C ) d x <

Answer & Explanation

Blaine Foster

Blaine Foster

Beginner2022-06-12Added 33 answers

Note that by Taylor expansion of exp function, for any k 1 and x 0 we have exp ( x ) x k k ! . Hence for any d > 0, C > 0, k 1 and x > 0 we get
exp ( x d 2 C ) ( x d ) k ( 2 C ) k k !
Choose k such that d k 2. Let M = 1 ( 2 C ) k k ! (it's independent of x !). Then for x 1 we get exp ( x d 2 C ) M x 2 . Hence
1 exp ( x d 2 C ) d x 1 1 M x 2 d x <
migongoniwt

migongoniwt

Beginner2022-06-13Added 4 answers

Using the change of variable u = x d 2 C x = ( 2 C u ) 1 d , you have
I = 1 exp ( x d 2 C )   d x = A 1 2 C u 1 d 1 e u   d x
where A is a constant. And the integral of the RHS is convergent.

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