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Zion Wheeler

Zion Wheeler

Answered question

2022-06-13

Why is n = 1 1 n sin ( x n n ) uniformly convergent?

Answer & Explanation

Tianna Deleon

Tianna Deleon

Beginner2022-06-14Added 29 answers

Use Weirestrass M test. We have | sin ( x ) | | x | , x R
| 1 n sin ( x n n ) | | 1 n | | x n n | 1 n 1 n . This is because x [ 1 , 1 ]
Since n = 1 1 n n converges you have uniform convergence by Weirestrass-M Test .
Llubanipo

Llubanipo

Beginner2022-06-15Added 9 answers

It's a serie of definitely alternating sign. So, we must study the absolute convergence. Let:
a n = | 1 n sin ( x n n ) |
We can apply the asympotic criteria because a n is always non-negative. We have:
lim n + a n = lim n + | 1 n sin ( x n n ) | lim n + | x n n n | 1 n n = 1 n 3 2
Here, we have use the fact that | x n | n 0 if x [ 1 , 1 ]. The series n = 1 + 1 n 3 2 converges, thus by comparison test, converges also your series.

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