How would you compute the following series? I'm interested in some easy approaches that would allow

Carolyn Beck

Carolyn Beck

Answered question

2022-06-16

How would you compute the following series? I'm interested in some easy approaches that would allow me to work it out.
n = 1 4 n n ! ( 2 n ) !

Answer & Explanation

nuvolor8

nuvolor8

Beginner2022-06-17Added 32 answers

It suffices to calculate the sum with the summation index running from 0, not from 1. Then
n = 0 4 n n ! ( 2 n ) ! = n = 0 4 n ( 2 n ) ! 0 t n e t d t = 0 n = 0 4 n t n ( 2 n ) ! e t d t = 0 cosh ( 2 t ) e t d t = 0 2 u cosh ( 2 u ) e u 2 d u ( t = u 2 ) = [ cosh ( 2 u ) e u 2 ] 0 + 2 0 sinh ( 2 u ) e u 2 d u = 1 + 2 0 sinh ( 2 u ) e u 2 d u = 1 + 0 ( e 2 u e 2 u ) e u 2 d u = 1 + e 0 ( e ( u 1 ) 2 e ( u + 1 ) 2 ) d u .
Now it is clear how to express the last integrals in terms of the error function, yielding
n = 1 4 n n ! ( 2 n ) ! = e π e r f ( 1 ) .
kixEffinsoj

kixEffinsoj

Beginner2022-06-18Added 3 answers

Here is a generalization. Consider the generating function
f ( x ) = n 1 x 2 n n ! ( 2 n ) ! .
It's an easy check that 2 is in the radius of convergence, so that we need to compute f ( 2 ) to solve your problem. However, it's easy to see that
f ( x ) = 1 + n 1 x 2 n ( n + 1 ) ! ( 2 n ) !
Moreover,
x f ( x ) = 2 n 1 x 2 n n ! ( 2 n ) ! n
We get the second-order ODE
x f ( x ) 2 + f ( x ) = f ( x ) 1 , f ( 0 ) = 0 , f ( 0 ) = 0.
And the solution
f ( x ) = 1 2 e x 2 / 4 x π e r f ( x / 2 ) .
Just plug in x = 2 to get your answer, e π e r f ( 1 )

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