I'm new to mathematical proofs, and I have just covered the Intermediate Value Theorem. I have tried

rose2904ks

rose2904ks

Answered question

2022-06-26

I'm new to mathematical proofs, and I have just covered the Intermediate Value Theorem. I have tried to practice my understanding of the theorem, but I have encountered a question that I'm not sure how to approach.

The question is:

Assume that f and g are continuous on the interval [0,1] and 0 f ( x ) 1 for all x [ 0 , 1 ]. Show that if g ( 0 ) = 0 and g ( 1 ) = 1, then there exists a c [ 0 , 1 ] such that f ( c ) = g ( c ).

What I have tried doing:

Introducing another function like such h ( x ) = f ( x ) g ( x ) and applying the theorem. However, I'm not sure if that is possible, or how I should go about doing it.

Answer & Explanation

Haggar72

Haggar72

Beginner2022-06-27Added 25 answers

Introducing another function like such h(x)=f(x)−g(x) and applying the theorem.

That's exactly the right thing to do!
h is continuous as f , g are. And h ( 0 ) = f ( 0 ) g ( 0 ) = f ( 0 ) 0 = f ( 0 ) so 0 h ( 0 ) = f ( 0 ) 1. whereas h ( 1 ) = f ( 1 ) g ( 1 ) = f ( 1 ) 1. Now 0 f ( 1 ) so 1 f ( 1 ) 1 = h ( 1 ) 0.
Now IVT on h: h ( 0 ) 0 h ( 1 ) so there c [ 0 , 1 ] so that h ( c ) = 0. Which would mean h ( c ) = f ( c ) g ( c ) = 0 and so f ( c ) = g ( c ).

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