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Cristopher Knox

Cristopher Knox

Answered question

2022-07-10

I would like to show that:
n = 0 1 ( 3 n + 1 ) ( 3 n + 2 ) = π 3 3

Answer & Explanation

Sophia Mcdowell

Sophia Mcdowell

Beginner2022-07-11Added 14 answers

Regularized the series:
n = 0 m 1 ( 3 n + 1 ) ( 3 n + 2 ) = n = 0 m ( 1 3 n + 1 1 3 n + 2 ) = n = 0 m 0 1 ( x 3 n x 3 n + 1 ) d x = 0 1 ( ( 1 x 3 m + 3 ) ( 1 x ) 1 x 3 ) d x = 0 1 1 x 3 m + 3 1 + x + x 2 d x
Now we can take the limit by dominating convergence theorem:
n = 0 1 ( 3 n + 1 ) ( 3 n + 2 ) = 0 1 d x 1 + x + x 2 = 2 3 3 arctan ( 2 x + 1 3 ) | 0 1 = π 3 3
Kaeden Hoffman

Kaeden Hoffman

Beginner2022-07-12Added 3 answers

An important trick here is that sigma and integral signs can be changed around.
n = a b f ( n , x ) d x = n = a b f ( n , x ) d x
And this is because
n = a b f ( n , x ) d x
f ( a , x ) + f ( ( a + 1 ) , x ) + f ( ( a + 2 ) , x ) + + f ( ( b 1 ) , x ) + f ( b , x )
= f ( a , x ) d x + f ( ( a + 1 ) , x ) d x + + f ( ( b 1 ) , x ) d x + f ( b , x ) d x
Therefore
n = 0 m 1 ( 3 n + 1 ) ( 3 n + 2 ) = n = 0 m ( 1 3 n + 1 1 3 n + 2 ) = n = 0 m 0 1 ( x 3 n x 3 n + 1 ) d x = 0 1 n = 0 m ( x 3 n x 3 n + 1 ) d x = 0 1 ( ( 1 x 3 m + 3 ) ( 1 x ) 1 x 3 ) d x = 0 1 1 x 3 m + 3 1 + x + x 2 d x
Also because
n = 0 m ( x 3 n x 3 n + 1 ) = ( 1 x 3 ( m + 1 ) ) ( 1 x ) 1 x 3
Now let us see how the final integral
n = 0 1 ( 3 n + 1 ) ( 3 n + 2 ) = 0 1 d x 1 + x + x 2
is evaluated.
x 2 + x + 1 = ( x + 1 2 ) 2 + ( 3 2 ) 2
therefore if you skip two steps of substitution and do it once
x + 1 2 = 3 2 t a n θ
d x = 3 2 s e c 2 θ
d x 1 + x + x 2 = 3 2 s e c 2 θ 3 4 s e c 2 θ d θ = 2 3 θ = 2 3 t a n 1 ( 2 x + 1 3 )
0 1 d x 1 + x + x 2 = 2 3 3 ( t a n 1 ( 3 3 ) t a n 1 ( 1 3 ) )
= 2 3 3 ( π 3 π 6 ) = π 3 3

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