Prove that : sum_(k=0)^infty (-1)^k/(2k+1)^3=pi^3/32

Jadon Camacho

Jadon Camacho

Answered question

2022-11-14

Prove that :
k = 0 ( 1 ) k ( 2 k + 1 ) 3 = π 3 32 .

Answer & Explanation

Nkgopotsev1g

Nkgopotsev1g

Beginner2022-11-15Added 15 answers

You can evaluate this sum using the residue theorem. First, note that it may be extended out to :
k = 0 ( 1 ) k ( 2 k + 1 ) 3 = 1 2 k = ( 1 ) k ( 2 k + 1 ) 3
From the residue theorem:
k = ( 1 ) k ( 2 k + 1 ) 3 = Res z = 1 / 2 π csc π z ( 2 z + 1 ) 3 = 1 8 Res z = 1 / 2 π csc π z ( z + 1 / 2 ) 3
This residue involves taking the second derivative of the csc term. Note that, for a generic function f(z) having a triple pole at z = z 0 :
Res z = z 0 f ( z ) = 1 2 ! lim z z 0 d 2 d z 2 [ ( z z 0 ) 3 f ( z ) ]
so that
Res z = 1 / 2 π csc π z ( z + 1 / 2 ) 3 = π 3 2 ! [ csc π z cot 2 π z + csc 3 π z ] z = 1 / 2 = π 3 2
Putting this all together, we get the stated result:
k = 0 ( 1 ) k ( 2 k + 1 ) 3 = π 3 32
Aryanna Fisher

Aryanna Fisher

Beginner2022-11-16Added 6 answers

Here is another way using Fourier analysis: Let
f ( t ) = { t t 2 0 < t < 1 f ( t ) 1 < t < 0
be a function with period 2. Then we can express f in a Fourer series:
f ( t ) = a 0 2 + n = 1 a n cos n π t + b n sin n π t
where
a n = 1 1 0 2 f ( t ) cos n π t d t b n = 1 1 0 2 f ( t ) sin n π t d t
But f is odd, so a n = 0. It follows that
b n = 0 2 f ( t ) sin n π t d t = { f ( t ) sin n π t  even } = 2 0 1 f ( t ) sin n π t d t = = 2 0 1 ( t t 2 ) sin n π t d t = 4 4 ( 1 ) n n 3 π 3
Plugging in t = 1 2 , we get
1 4 = 4 n = 1 1 ( 1 ) n π 3 n 3 sin n π 2
But 1 ( 1 ) n = 0 only if n is even, so
1 16 = k = 0 2 ( 1 ) k ( 2 k + 1 ) 3 π 3 k = 0 ( 1 ) k ( 2 k + 1 ) 3 = π 3 32

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