Prove that X subset Y Rightarrow f^{-1} (X) subset f^{-1}(Y).... Is invertibility assumed?

kadirsmr9d

kadirsmr9d

Answered question

2022-09-07

Prove that X Y f 1 ( X ) f 1 ( Y ) .... Is invertibility assumed?
I was able to go ahead and prove this statement by applying the definition of the pre-image. My questions are:
1. Does this statement assume that function is invertible to begin with. Wouldn't a non-invertible function be a counterexample to this statement.
2. Will this statement hold if we replace with equality sign?

Answer & Explanation

Raven Mosley

Raven Mosley

Beginner2022-09-08Added 14 answers

Step 1
1. No, it is not. This is question about pre-images.
Step 2
2. Yes; if X = Y, then f 1 ( X ) = f 1 ( Y ).

Do you have a similar question?

Recalculate according to your conditions!

New Questions in Discrete math

Ask your question.
Get an expert answer.

Let our experts help you. Answer in as fast as 15 minutes.

Didn't find what you were looking for?