Are partial derivatives of parametric surfaces always orthogonal? For a surface <mrow class="MJ

Brenden Tran

Brenden Tran

Answered question

2022-06-21

Are partial derivatives of parametric surfaces always orthogonal?
For a surface r = r ( s , t ) are the partial derivates r s and r t in general orthogonal?

Answer & Explanation

Quinn Everett

Quinn Everett

Beginner2022-06-22Added 23 answers

Step 1
Your example is apparently
r ( θ , ϕ ) = ( cos θ sin ϕ , sin θ sin ϕ , cos ϕ )
where it is indeed true that r θ r ϕ = 0 . But notice that this a standard coordinate parametrization of the sphere. This coordinate system was chosen exactly for the property that the θ and ϕ coordinate directions are perpendicular to each other.
In general, this is not true. Another familiar way of parametrizing half the sphere is
r ( x , y ) = ( x , y , 1 x 2 y 2 )
for which we find
r x = ( 1 , 0 , x 1 x 2 y 2 ) r y = ( 0 , 1 , y 1 x 2 y 2 )
and thus
r x r y = x y 1 x 2 y 2
which is only 0 when either x or y is 0.

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