Assume we have an arc-length parameterized curve &#x03B2;<!-- β --> : I &#x2192;<!-- →

gaiaecologicaq2

gaiaecologicaq2

Answered question

2022-07-11

Assume we have an arc-length parameterized curve β : I E 2 with I a random interval. I want to show that if β ( s ) β ( s ) = 0 for arc-length parameter s, then β is (part of) a circle.

I was thinking about using the Frenet-formulas for proving this. If we want to show something is a circle, one needs to show that the curvature is constant. In the Frenet-frame ( T , N ), the curvature is: κ = T N. So to be constant, it needs to be:
κ = 0 = T N + T N
I was thinking about using the formulas T = β , T = κ N and N = κ T. But together with the given condition: β ( s ) β ( s ) = 0, I got stuck.

Answer & Explanation

Mekjulleymg

Mekjulleymg

Beginner2022-07-12Added 14 answers

Note that a curve lies on a circle if β ( s ) β ( s ) = c = r 2 for some (necessarily positive) constant c. Since I is connected, it suffices to check that the derivative of β ( s ) β ( s ) is 0. However the derivative of β ( s ) β ( s ) is 2 β ( s ) β ( s ), and we already know this is 0 by the given information.

In general, if the curve lies in R n , this shows that the curve lies on a sphere.
Yesenia Obrien

Yesenia Obrien

Beginner2022-07-13Added 5 answers

Since | | β ( s ) | | 2 = β ( s ) β ( s ) you can use the product rule to show s | | β ( s ) | | 2 = 0.

Do you have a similar question?

Recalculate according to your conditions!

New Questions in High school geometry

Ask your question.
Get an expert answer.

Let our experts help you. Answer in as fast as 15 minutes.

Didn't find what you were looking for?